CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam Answer v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

2. For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)

• It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.
• It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.
• Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.
• It allows for billing of network use by the amount of time a connection is established.
• It requires that a data circuit between the source and destination be established before data can be transferred.

3. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

• DSL
• dialup
• satellite
• leased line
• cable modem

4. What is an ISP?

• It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
• It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
• It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
• It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

5. An administrator needs to upgrade the IOS in a router to a version that supports new features. Which factor should the administrator consider before performing the upgrade?

• The old IOS must be removed first.
• NVRAM must be erased before the new IOS can be installed.
• The new IOS might require more RAM to function properly.
• The old IOS should be backed up to NVRAM so that it is not lost during a power failure.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• Connect to the Ethernet port on the PC.
• Change connection settings to even parity.
• Move the cable to the router console port.
• Use a crossover cable instead of a rollover cable.

7. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco router?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

8. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to view the current configuration on this switch but receives the error message that is displayed. What does this error indicate?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• The command does not exist.
• One or more required keywords or arguments were omitted.
• Not enough characters were entered for the interpreter to recognize the command.
• The administrator does not have the required level of access to use this command.

9. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

• The banner message is too long.
• The delimiting character appears in the banner message.
• The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
• Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

10. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

• This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
• This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
• This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
• This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.
• This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• letmein
• secretin
• lineconin
• linevtyin

12. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

• The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
• The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
• The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

13. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

• The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
• The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.
• The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
• The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

14. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

• presentation layer
• network layer
• physical layer
• data link layer

15. Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?

• to facilitate cable termination in the connector
• to extend the signaling length
• to improve the mechanical strength
• to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

• physical
• network
• data link
• transport
• application

18. On a point-to-point network, which communication type is used when two devices can both transmit and receive but not at the same time?

• controlled access
• deterministic
• full-duplex
• half-duplex

19. What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)

• Controlled media access involves collision handling.
• It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.
• It uses contention-based access also known as deterministic access.
• 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
• Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.

20. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

• to determine the physical address of the sending device
• to verify the network layer protocol information
• to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
• to check the frame for possible transmission errors
• to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

21. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

• Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
• Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
• Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
• Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

22. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

• building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
• using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
• forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
• utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
• examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

23. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

24. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

• The IOS image is corrupt.
• Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
• The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
• The POST process has detected hardware failure.

25. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

26. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

• to identify missing segments at the destination
• to reassemble the segments at the remote location
• to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
• to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
• to determine if the packet changed during transit

27. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 192.168.25.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?

• This is a loopback address.
• This is a link-local address.
• This is a private IP address.
• There is an IP address conflict.

28. Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?

• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• NAT

29. Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

• 2001:0DB8::ABCD::1234
• ABCD:160D::4GAB:FFAB
• 2001:DB8:0:1111::200
• 2001::ABCD::

30. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface??

• FEC0::/10?
• FDEE::/7?
• FEBF::/10
• FF00::/8?

31. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

• broadcast address
• global routing prefix
• subnet mask
• subnet ID
• interface ID

32. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

• to inform routers about network topology changes
• to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
• to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
• to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

33. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

• It sends four Echo Request messages.
• It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.
• It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.
• It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.

34. Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

• 255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252
• 255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252

35. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?

• 3
• 4
• 6
• 8
• 14
• 16

36. A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?

• 192.168.99.0/26
  192.168.99.64/27
• 192.168.99.0/27
  192.168.99.32/26
• 192.168.99.0/27
  192.168.99.32/28
• 192.168.99.0/28
  192.168.99.16/28
• 192.168.99.0/28
  192.168.99.64/26

37. The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create?

• 1024
• 2048
• 4096
• 8192
• 65536

38. A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

• DNS server
• WINS server
• HTTP server
• default gateway
• Netbios

39. Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?

• Layer 7 devices
• Layer 4 devices
• Layer 2 devices
• Layer 3 devices

40. Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?

• line
• router
• global
• interface
• privileged EXEC

41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

• Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
• A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
• A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
• The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

42. Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?

• indicates the point of failure in the connection
• shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route
• lists the IP addresses of all hops the traffic will pass through to reach the destination network
• shows the incoming and outgoing interfaces the traffic will go through in order to reach the destination network

43. A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?

• The workstation NIC has malfunctioned.
• The subnet mask was configured incorrectly.
• The DNS server IP address needs to be configured.
• The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

44. A particular email site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

• ipconfig /all
• arp -a
• ipconfig /displaydns
• nslookup

45. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged? 

• The command should have been copy startup-config tftp.
• The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.
• The configuration changes were copied into RAM and require a reboot to take effect.
• A TFTP server can only be used to restore the Cisco IOS, not the router configuration.

46. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

47. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

48. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

• network mode
• SSID
• radio band
• wide channel
• standard channel
• SSID broadcast

49. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.
Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode? no switchport 

50. Fill in the blank.

A nibble consists of      4      bits.

51. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

52. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

53. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015)

54. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?

• router
• switch
• frame
• packet
• cisco

55. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is          winner                  .?

CCNA Exploration Version 4.0 ERouting Final 3a

CCNA Exploration version 4.0 ERouting final exam
CCNA1 ERouting Final 3a
Answer mark is (*). 
1. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
(*)The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
(*)The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
(*)The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
(*)10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
(*)192.168.2.0/24

3. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
(*)It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
(*)It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

4. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
--------------------------------------------
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
--------------------------------------------
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
--------------------------------------------
(*)B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
--------------------------------------------
A(config)# no router rip

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
(*)All routes are stable.
(*)The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
(*)The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
(*)Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
(*)No default route has been configured.

7. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
(*)NVRAM - stores the configuration file
ROM - stores the backup configuration file
(*)POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

8. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
(*)The routers must agree on the network type.
(*)The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

9. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
(*)packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
(*)path selection
flow control

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
(*)Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
The static route will not work correctly.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
(*)route to 0.0.0.0/0
route to 10.1.0.0/22
route to 10.1.0.0/23
route to 10.1.0.0/24

12. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
(*)ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
(*)ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

13. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
(*)Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
(*)Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ADC
ABC
(*)It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

15. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
(*)They are aware of the complete network topology.
(*)They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.

16. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
(*)It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.

17. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
(*)S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

18. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
(*)The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance.
The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

19. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
(*)It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
triggered updates
poison reverse
holddown timers
(*)split horizon

21. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
(*)Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

22. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
(*)limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

23. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
(*)Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

24. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
(*)The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
(*)The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
(*)The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
(*)198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22

26. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
(*)The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

27. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
1
(*)2
3
4
5
6

28. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
(*)IP classless has been disabled on the Suffolk router.
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.

29. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
(*)As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
(*)If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
(*)The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

30. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
(*)Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config)# router eigrp
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
(*)Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
(*)Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

31. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
(*)Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

32. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
(*)network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
(*)wildcard mask
(*)area ID

33. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
(*)OSPF interval timers mismatch
administrative distance mismatch
(*)interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
gateway of last resort not redistributed

34. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
(*)The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

35. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
(*)learn about directly connected networks
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

36. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
(*)Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
(*)The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

38. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
(*)S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

39. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
(*)Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
(*)Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
(*)EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
(*)Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
172.16.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/10
(*)172.16.0.0/13
172.16.0.0/20
172.16.0.0/24

43. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
The default gateway is incorrect.
The address is in the wrong subnet.
The host address and default gateway are swapped.
(*)192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

44. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
(*)DCE
(*)CSU/DSU
LAN switch
(*)modem
hub

45. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Perform the POST routine.
Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
Load the running-config file from RAM.
(*)Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

46. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
(*)Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
(*)172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

48. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
(*)B, D
A, B, D
D, SWH-2
SWH-1, A, B
SWH-1, SWH-2
A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

49. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
(*)Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

50. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
(*)tests Layer 2 connectivity
provides a layer of security
operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
(*)enabled by default on each interface
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
(*)provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

51. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
(*)The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

52. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
(*)R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

53. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
(*)DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
Reboot the routers.
Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
(*)Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

55. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
(*)used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

56. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
(*)The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

57. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
(*)OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not support classless routing.
(*)EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
(*)RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

CCNA1 Final latest version ~100/100

CCNA1 Final latest version ~100/100
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CCNA 1 Final

1.Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)?

¨          transceiver

¨          router 

¨          switch 

¨          hub 

¨          media

2.Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?

¡          3

¡          5

¡          6

¡          7

¡          8

¡          9

3.Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?

¡          Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.

¡          Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.

¡          Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.

¡          Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.

¡          Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?

¡          The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.

¡          The switch will not support full-duplex mode.

¡          The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.

¡          The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.

5.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?

¡          session

¡          transport

¡          network

¡          data link

¡          physical

6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

¡          three

¡          four

¡          five

¡          six

¡          seven

¡          eight

7.A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

¨          After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.

¨          When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.

¨          When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds

¨          When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit

¨          When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.

¨          When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.

8.Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)

¨          switch

¨          hub

¨          bridge

¨          router

¨          repeater

9.What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)

¨          Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.

¨          Existing switches might need to be upgraded.

¨          Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.

¨          Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.

¨          Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.

¨          Existing network topology must support shared media.

10.Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)

¨          the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1

¨          a unique host IP address

¨          the IP address of Switch 1

¨          the default gateway address

¨          the MAC address of Host C

¨          the subnet mask for the LAN LAN

11.Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?

¡          11101000

¡          11110100

¡          11111000

¡          11111010

12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29? 223.168.17.167/29？

¡          host address

¡          multicast address

¡          broadcast address

¡          subnetwork address

13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)

¨          Layer 1 bit pattern

¨          Layer 2 frames

¨          Layer 3 packets

¨          Layer 4 segments

¨          Layer 5 -7 data

14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

¡          172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224

¡          172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0

¡          172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0

¡          172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

¡          172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?

¡          6 networks / 32 hosts

¡          14 networks / 14 hosts

¡          30 networks / 6 hosts

¡          62 networks / 2 hosts

16.Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?

¡          255.255.224.0

¡          255.255.240.0

¡          255.255.248.0

¡          255.255.252.0

¡          255.255.254.0

¡          255.255.255.0

17.A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

¡          172.31.0.0

¡          172.31.160.0

¡          172.31.192.0

¡          172.31.248.0

¡          172.31.192.160

¡          172.31.192.248

18.What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

¨          exchanges datagrams unreliably

¨          is used to send IP error messages

¨          forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets

¨          creates a virtual session between end-user applications

¨          carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header

¨          is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination

19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?

¡          FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.

¡          FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.

¡          The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.

¡          The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.

20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

¨          UDP

¨          FTP

¨          IP

¨          SMTP

¨          TCP

21.Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

¨          Ethernet

¨          DSL

¨          Token Ring

¨          Frame Relay

¨          FDDI

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?

¡           data, segments, frames, packets, bits

¡           data, packets, segments, frames, bits

¡           data, segments, packets, frames, bits

¡           data, packets, frames, segments, bits

23.Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?

¡           Both cables are acceptable.

¡           The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

¡           The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.

¡           The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?

¡           rollover

¡           console

¡           crossover

¡           straight-through

25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

¡           1 and 2; 4 and 5

¡           1 and 2; 3 and 6

¡           3 and 6; 7 and 8

¡           4 and 5; 7 and 8

26.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?

¡           crossover B- straight-through C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through

¡           crossover B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiberE-crossover

¡           straight-through B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through

¡           fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through

¡           straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through

¡           crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through

27.Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?

¡           console

¡           rollover

¡           crossover

¡           straight-through

 

28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?

¡           Cable A 

¡           Cable B 

¡           Cable C 

¡           Cable D

29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)

¡           255.0.0.0 

¡           255.254.0.0 

¡           255.224.0.0 

¡           255.255.0.0 

¡           255.255.252.0 

¡           255.255.255.192

30.What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?

¡           static

¡           dynamic

¡           interior

¡           exterior

31. Which statement describes a star topology?

¡           Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.

¡           Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.

¡           Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.

¡           Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.

32.Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)

¨           link A

¨           link B

¨           link C

¨           link D

¨           link E

33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?

¡           The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.

¡           The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.

¡           The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.

¡           The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.

34.Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)

¨           192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.

¨           192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.

¨           1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.

¨           192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.

¨           The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.

¨           To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.

35.Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?

¡           transport

¡           network

¡           data link

¡           physical

36.Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?

¡           00-06-5B-88-DF-C3

¡           B0-D0-7F-F7-46

¡           00-0F-24-85-75-C0

¡           00-0B-E5-64-BD-44

¡           00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

¡           00-08-A3-B6-CE-03

37.Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?

¡           hub

¡           router

¡           bridge

¡           access point

¡           Layer 2 switch

38.When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?

¡           network

¡           application

¡           session

¡           transport

39.A company has the following addressing scheme requirements:   -currently has 25 subnets   -uses a Class B IP address   -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment   -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?

¡           255.255.240.0

¡           255.255.248.0

¡           255.255.254.0

¡           255.255.255.0

¡           255.255.255.128

¡           255.255.255.248

40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?

¡           Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN. LAN

¡           The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.

¡           A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.

¡           The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.

41.Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?

¡           router

¡           switch

¡           bridge

¡           repeater

42.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

¡           coax cable

¡           rollover cable

¡           crossover cable

¡           straight-through cable

43.A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?

¡           The switch drops the frame.

¡           The switch sends the frame out port 3.

¡           The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.

¡           The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.

¡           The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.

44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

¡           the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub

¡           the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub

¡           a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub

¡           an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub

45.Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?

¡           Layer 1

¡           Layer 2

¡           Layer 3

¡           Layer 4

46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?

47.Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?

¡           It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.

¡           It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.

¡           It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.

¡           It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.

48.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)

o           Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33

o           Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33

o           Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33

o           Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65

o           Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65

o           Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65

49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

¡           application

¡           session

¡           transport

¡           network

¡           data link